(Devarim 24:2) "And she shall go out of his house": We are hereby taught that the woman leaves the presence of the man (i.e., she leaves the house, not he.)
"and she shall go and she may be to another man": She should not marry in his (the first's) neighborhood.
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אַחֵר, כְּבָר קְרָאַתּוֹ הַתּוֹרָה אַחֵר.
"another man": Scripture calls him "another," (demonstrating that he is not on a par [morally] with the first, the first having banished "a thing of nakedness" from his home; the second, having admitted her.)
If a divorcée (from the second husband) is mentioned (as forbidden to the first,), why mention a widow (as being forbidden to him)? For a divorcée is forbidden to the levir (her second husband's brother [in the event of her second husband's dying without children]) whereas a widow is permitted to the levir (in the above instance).
I might think that even if she had illicit relations with another after she were divorced, she is forbidden to return to him; it is, therefore, written (Ibid. 2) "and he shall write her … (3) and she shall go out, etc.": (Only) one who goes out with a get (from a second husband) is forbidden to return to the first, but not one who had illicit relations with another.
And whence is it derived that if one gives a get to his yevamah (in advance of levirate marriage) she may not return to him? From (Ibid. 4) "Her first husband shall not be able, etc." And whence is it derived that if a woman's husband went abroad, and she was told that he died, and she married another — after which he returned (Whence is it derived) that she needs a get from both? From "Her first husband shall not be able … to return to take her to be to him as a wife."
(Ibid.) "after she had been defiled": This tells me only (that this is so) from marriage (with the first) to marriage (with the second). Whence do I derive (the same for) from betrothal to marriage, from marriage to betrothal, from betrothal to betrothal? From "Her first husband shall not be able to take her; "her first to take her," "who had sent her away to take her," "to return to take her."
R. Yossi b. Kipper says in the name of R. Elazar b. Azaryah: From betrothal (to the second) she is permitted (to return to the first); from marriage she is forbidden, it being written "after she has been defiled" (i.e., cohabited with). And the sages say: Both from betrothal and marriage she is forbidden. Why, then, is it written "after she has been defiled"? To include (as forbidden to return to him) a sotah (a woman suspected of adultery) who had secreted herself (with the one she was warned against.)
"for she (a returned divorcée) is an abomination before the L-rd": As it is written (Jeremiah 3:1) "If a man divorces his wife, and she goes and marries another man, can he return to her again?"
(דברים כד ב) וְיָצְאָה מִבֵּיתוֹ, מְלַמֵּד שֶׁהָאִשָּׁה יוֹצְאָה מִלִּפְנֵי הָאִישׁ.
(Devarim 24:2) "And she shall go out of his house": We are hereby taught that the woman leaves the presence of the man (i.e., she leaves the house, not he.)
וְהָלְכָה וְהָיְתָה לְאִישׁ אַחֵר, שֶׁלֹּא תִּנָּשֵׂא עִמּוֹ בִּשְׁכוּנָה.
"and she shall go and she may be to another man": She should not marry in his (the first's) neighborhood.
אַחֵר, כְּבָר קְרָאַתּוֹ הַתּוֹרָה אַחֵר.
"another man": Scripture calls him "another," (demonstrating that he is not on a par [morally] with the first, the first having banished "a thing of nakedness" from his home; the second, having admitted her.)
(דברים כד ג) וּשְׂנֵאָהּ הָאִישׁ הָאַחֲרוֹן, הַכָּתוּב מְבַשֶּׂרְךָ שֶׁאַתָּה עָתִיד לִשְׂנֹאתָהּ.
(Ibid. 3) "And if the last man hate her": Scripture apprises us that he is destined to hate her.
אוֹ כִּי יָמוּת הָאִישׁ הָאַחֲרוֹן, הַכָּתוּב מְבַשֶּׂרְךָ שֶׁעֲתִידָה לְקָבְרוֹ.
"or if the last man die": Scripture apprises us that she is destined to bury him.
אֵין לִי אֶלָּא גְּרוּשָׁה, אַלְמָנָה מִנַּיִן? תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר: אוֹ כִּי יָמוּת הָאִישׁ הָאַחֲרוֹן. אִם סוֹפֵנוּ לְרַבּוֹת אַלְמָנָה, מַה תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר גְּרוּשָׁה? אַלְמָנָה מֻתֶּרֶת לַיָּבָם, גְּרוּשָׁה אֲסוּרָה לַיָּבָם.
If a divorcée (from the second husband) is mentioned (as forbidden to the first,), why mention a widow (as being forbidden to him)? For a divorcée is forbidden to the levir (her second husband's brother [in the event of her second husband's dying without children]) whereas a widow is permitted to the levir (in the above instance).
יָכוֹל אַף שֶׁקִּלְקְלָה עַל בַּעְלָהּ לְאַחַר שֶׁנִּתְגָּרְשָׁה תְּהֵא אֲסוּרָה לַחֲזוֹר לוֹ? תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר (דברים כד א): ״וְכָתַב לָהּ סֵפֶר כְּרִיתֻת וְיָצְאָה״, הַיּוֹצְאָה בְּגֵט תְּהֵא אֲסוּרָה לַחֲזוֹר לוֹ, וְלֹא שֶׁקִּלְקְלָה עַל בַּעְלָהּ לְאַחַר שֶׁנִּתְגָּרְשָׁה תְּהֵא אֲסוּרָה לַחֲזוֹר לוֹ.
I might think that even if she had illicit relations with another after she were divorced, she is forbidden to return to him; it is, therefore, written (Ibid. 2) "and he shall write her … (3) and she shall go out, etc.": (Only) one who goes out with a get (from a second husband) is forbidden to return to the first, but not one who had illicit relations with another.
(דברים כד ד) מִנַּיִן לְנוֹתֵן גֵּט לִיבִמְתּוֹ שֶׁאָסוּר לַחֲזֹר עָלֶיהָ? תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר: לֹא יוּכַל בַּעְלָהּ הָרִאשׁוֹן. מִנַּיִן לְאִשָּׁה שֶׁהָלַךְ בַּעְלָהּ לִמְדִינַת הַיָּם וְאָמְרוּ לָהּ ״מֵת בַּעְלֵיךְ״ וְנִשֵּׂאת, וְאַחַר כָּךְ בָּא בַעְלָהּ, שֶׁתֵּצֵא מִזֶּה וּמִזֶּה וּצְרִיכָה גֵּט מִזֶּה וּמִזֶּה? תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר: לֹא יוּכַל בַּעְלָהּ הָרִאשׁוֹן אֲשֶׁר שִׁלְּחָהּ לָשׁוּב לְקַחְתָּהּ, לֹא יוּכַל לָשׁוּב לָקַחַת אֶת אֲשֶׁר שִׁלֵּחַ.
And whence is it derived that if one gives a get to his yevamah (in advance of levirate marriage) she may not return to him? From (Ibid. 4) "Her first husband shall not be able, etc." And whence is it derived that if a woman's husband went abroad, and she was told that he died, and she married another — after which he returned (Whence is it derived) that she needs a get from both? From "Her first husband shall not be able … to return to take her to be to him as a wife."
אֲשֶׁר שִׁלְּחָהּ, אֵין לִי אֶלָּא מִן הַנִּשּׂוּאִים לַנִּשּׂוּאִים מִן הָאֵרוּסִים לָאֵרוּסִים מִן הָאֵרוּסִים לַנִּשּׂוּאִים מִן לַנִּשּׂוּאִים לָאֵרוּסִים מִנַּיִן, תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר: לֹא יוּכַל בַּעְלָהּ הָרִאשׁוֹן, לֹא יוּכַל הָרִאשׁוֹן לָקַחַת אֵת אֲשֶׁר שִׁלַּח.
(Ibid.) "after she had been defiled": This tells me only (that this is so) from marriage (with the first) to marriage (with the second). Whence do I derive (the same for) from betrothal to marriage, from marriage to betrothal, from betrothal to betrothal? From "Her first husband shall not be able to take her; "her first to take her," "who had sent her away to take her," "to return to take her."
רַבִּי יוֹסֵי בֶּן כֵּיפָר אוֹמֵר מִשּׁוּם רַבִּי אֶלְעָזָר בֶּן עֲזַרְיָה: מִן הָאֵרוּסִים מֻתֶּרֶת, מִן הַנִּשּׂוּאִים אֲסוּרָה, שֶׁנֶּאֱמַר: אַחֲרֵי אֲשֶׁר הֻטַּמָּאָה. וַחֲכָמִים אוֹמְרִים: בֵּין מִן הָאֵרוּסִים בֵּין מִן הַנִּשּׂוּאִים אֲסוּרָה, אִם כֵּן לָמָּה נֶאֱמַר אַחֲרֵי אֲשֶׁר הֻטַּמָּאָה, לְרַבּוֹת סוֹטָה שֶׁנִּסְתְּרָה.
R. Yossi b. Kipper says in the name of R. Elazar b. Azaryah: From betrothal (to the second) she is permitted (to return to the first); from marriage she is forbidden, it being written "after she has been defiled" (i.e., cohabited with). And the sages say: Both from betrothal and marriage she is forbidden. Why, then, is it written "after she has been defiled"? To include (as forbidden to return to him) a sotah (a woman suspected of adultery) who had secreted herself (with the one she was warned against.)
וְכֵן הוּא אוֹמֵר (ירמיה ג א): ״הֵן יְשַׁלַּח אִישׁ אֶת אִשְׁתּוֹ וְהָלְכָה מֵאִתּוֹ״.
"for she (a returned divorcée) is an abomination before the L-rd": As it is written (Jeremiah 3:1) "If a man divorces his wife, and she goes and marries another man, can he return to her again?"
כִּי תוֹעֵבָה הִיא, רַבִּי יְהוּדָה אוֹמֵר: הִיא תּוֹעֵבָה וְאֵין הַוָּלָד תּוֹעֵבָה.
"for she is an abomination": R. Yehudah said: She is an abomination, but her child (of the renewed union) is not an abomination.
וְלֹא תַחֲטִיא אֶת הָאָרֶץ, לְהַזְהִיר בֵּית דִּין עַל כָּךְ.
"And you shall not make sinful the land": Beth-din is hereby being exhorted (to insure that this does not happen).